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This is in contrast to the other recording. This is what people heard rather than what Farland intended.
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What? He connected with sentimental Americana? That argument doesn't really make sense against my point
To add to Jody's and Joel's comments--
1. I think it's a mistake to assume that because Farland wrote and performed some "romantic" (in the classical/art music sense) stuff, that's what he intended for all his music. Good musicians (or at least, those who hope to make a living) compose/perform for a variety of audiences in a variety of contexts. When Farland wrote "The Sue Polka," was his goal to express his "inner romantic," or was his goal to supply a short and easy piece to the amateur banjoist? Which do you think is more likely?
2. I think these kinds of broad assertions (and please understand, I don't mean any offense) reveal an underdeveloped conceptual/theoretical understanding. What do we mean by "sentimental"? What do we mean by "Americana" (and how has the meaning/use of that term changed over time)? What makes a composer or a given piece of music "romantic"? What are the connections between European romanticism and the kind of nostalgic sentiment expressed by minstrelsy? You could write a book (and people have) on any one of these questions. Performance interpretation of 19th/early-20th century music is also a pretty well-studied area, and I get the sense that you are independently jumping to a particular conclusion without consulting the existing literature.
Minstrelsy was, arguably, romantic.
Converse published more romantic compositions than Farland.
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